Well, yes and no. Your point is well taken and I should have clarified.

Yes, because the script is in fact Greek because the word is a transliteration, as you indicated.

No, because, as you also indicated, it is a transliteration of an ARAMAIC phrase, just as “sushi” is an English transliteration of Japanese, obviously not written in Japanese SCRIPT, but nonetheless Japanese.

In spite of your sarcasm, your point is well taken and so deserves this further explanation…which I have edited into the original post.

Thanks…and by the way…You have a nice site, too…

That’s what you get “for free” I suppose.

Peace,
-Steve
Author, The Aramaic Blog